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AP US Government and Politics Full-length practice exam 2

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Full-length practice exam 2

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Question 1

Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010) is significant in campaign finance law primarily because the Supreme Court held that:

A.Corporations and unions have the same First Amendment rights as natural persons and may spend unlimited amounts in independent political expendituresB.Political campaigns are required to disclose all donors, including those who give less than $200C.Individual donors may give unlimited amounts directly to campaigns provided the money is used only for advertisingD.The Federal Election Commission was abolished and replaced with a new nonpartisan campaign finance board

Question 2

A political science researcher finds that college graduates are 20 percentage points more likely to identify as liberal than adults without a four-year degree. What type of factor is educational attainment in this analysis?

A.A dependent variable, since education is the outcome being explained by political beliefsB.An independent variable, since educational attainment is being used to predict or explain political identificationC.A confounding variable, since education and ideology are not actually related to each otherD.A margin of error, since a 20-point difference falls within normal sampling variation for political surveys

Question 3

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 relied primarily on which constitutional authority to reach private discrimination in employment and public accommodations?

A.The Fourteenth Amendment's equal protection clause, which the Court held extended directly to private conductB.The commerce clause, which gave Congress broad authority to regulate businesses engaged in or affecting interstate commerceC.The Thirteenth Amendment, which prohibits slavery and was held to extend to all forms of racial discrimination in private conductD.The necessary and proper clause alone, since civil rights legislation was 'necessary' even without another enumerated hook

Question 4

Shaw v. Reno (1993) raised the question of whether a congressional district could be challenged under the Equal Protection Clause based on its racially drawn shape. The Supreme Court ruled that:

A.States must draw majority-minority districts in all districts where minorities comprise more than 30% of the populationB.Bizarrely shaped districts drawn predominantly on racial lines are subject to strict scrutiny under the Equal Protection ClauseC.Race may never be considered in drawing district lines, even to remedy historical voting discriminationD.Majority-minority districts automatically satisfy the Voting Rights Act's requirements and may not be challenged

Question 5

Political parties in the United States have historically performed which of the following functions most consistently?

A.Writing and passing legislation directly, independent of elected officials' individual votesB.Recruiting and nominating candidates, mobilizing voters, and organizing government by structuring legislative leadership and committee assignmentsC.Providing a direct communication channel between individual voters and Supreme Court justicesD.Replacing interest groups as the primary vehicle for organized economic interests to influence policy

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Question 6

The chart below shows voter turnout by demographic group in the 2020 presidential election.

Group	Turnout
Ages 18-29	50%
Ages 30-44	60%
Ages 45-64	70%
Ages 65+	76%
College degree	75%
No college degree	55%

Which conclusion is best supported by this data?

A.Young voters are more politically engaged than older voters based on social media activityB.Voter turnout increases with both age and educational attainment, with older and more-educated citizens voting at consistently higher ratesC.The majority of eligible young voters cast ballots in the 2020 presidential electionD.Educational attainment is the sole determinant of voting behavior, making age irrelevant once education is controlled

Question 7

Which of the following best describes the principle of federalism as established by the Constitution?

A.All governmental power is concentrated in the national government, which delegates authority to states at its discretionB.Sovereignty is divided between a national government and state governments, each with constitutionally defined spheres of authorityC.States hold supreme authority over all domestic matters, with the national government limited to foreign affairsD.Local governments are constitutionally coequal with state and national governments in a three-tier system

Question 8

A student argues: 'The Founders chose representative government over direct democracy primarily for practical reasons — the country was simply too large for everyone to meet in one place.' A historian would most likely respond that this explanation is incomplete because it ignores:

A.The Founders' belief that representatives with greater knowledge and virtue would make better decisions than the general publicB.The fact that direct democracy was technically feasible through the postal system even in the eighteenth centuryC.The Founders' intention to expand suffrage to all adults, including women and enslaved people, within a generationD.The fear that representative government would inevitably become an aristocracy without proper term limits

Question 9

The Supremacy Clause of the Constitution (Article VI) establishes that:

A.The Supreme Court has final authority over all questions of law, including decisions by state courtsB.The Constitution, federal laws, and treaties are the supreme law of the land, binding on state judges even if state law says otherwiseC.Federal executive orders automatically supersede all state statutes in any area where the president has actedD.States may not pass any law that touches on a subject Congress has the power to regulate, even if Congress has not acted

Question 10

A Libertarian argues: 'Government should stay out of both the economy and personal life — protect property and contracts, nothing more.' How does libertarianism differ from traditional conservatism in the United States?

A.Libertarians favor higher taxes than conservatives to fund a strong militaryB.Libertarians oppose government intervention in both economic and social life; traditional conservatives often support government restrictions on social behavior aligned with traditional valuesC.Libertarians are identical to conservatives except they support labor unions and collective bargaining rightsD.Traditional conservatives favor no military; libertarians favor a large standing army for national security

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Question 11

The federal bureaucracy is often called the 'fourth branch' of government. Which of the following best explains why bureaucratic agencies are difficult for elected officials to fully control?

A.Federal employees are guaranteed lifetime tenure and cannot be removed under any circumstances once hiredB.Career bureaucrats possess specialized expertise and institutional memory that elected officials rely on, giving agencies practical autonomy in implementing policyC.The Constitution explicitly prohibits Congress from legislating on matters that fall within agencies' defined regulatory domainsD.Federal agencies are funded entirely by user fees and are therefore insulated from congressional appropriations control

Question 12

The graph shows party identification among Americans from 1970 to 2020. The data shows a trend of growing numbers of self-identified independents, rising from about 25% to about 40%.

Which conclusion is best supported by this trend?

A.American voters have become genuinely non-partisan and split their votes equally between parties in electionsB.Growing numbers of Americans prefer not to formally affiliate with either major party, though many still lean toward and vote for one party consistentlyC.Third-party candidates have won an increasing share of electoral votes as more voters break from the two major partiesD.The Republican and Democratic parties have merged their policy positions, creating an ideologically indistinguishable center

Question 13

Which of the following best explains the incumbency advantage in congressional elections?

A.The Constitution limits challengers from raising as much money as incumbentsB.Incumbents have higher name recognition, established fundraising networks, and can use official resources like franking privileges to communicate with constituentsC.Voters are legally required to vote for the incumbent unless the incumbent has been convicted of a crimeD.Gerrymandered districts are always drawn to favor incumbents of both parties, making districts safe for whoever currently holds them

Question 14

Survey researchers warn about 'question order effects' in polling. Which scenario best illustrates this phenomenon?

A.A pollster calls only landline phones, excluding cell phone users who may have different political viewsB.People who are asked about crime statistics first report lower approval of a president's crime policy than those asked about approval first, because the statistics prime negative thinkingC.A poll conducted two weeks before an election produces different results than one conducted two days beforeD.A poll in Spanish produces different results than the same poll in English among bilingual respondents

Question 15

A senator argues: 'The president cannot simply impound (refuse to spend) funds Congress has appropriated. Once we pass an appropriations bill, the executive must spend the money as directed.' This argument relies on which constitutional principle?

A.The president's duty to faithfully execute laws includes spending appropriated funds as Congress directsB.The Supremacy Clause requires the executive to follow all statutes regardless of the president's policy preferencesC.The War Powers Resolution prohibits the president from redirecting military appropriations without congressional approvalD.Article I gives Congress sole power to regulate the currency, which includes controlling how federal dollars are spent

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Question 16

The First Amendment states: 'Congress shall make no law… abridging the freedom of speech.' Under current constitutional doctrine, which of the following types of speech receives the LEAST First Amendment protection?

A.Political speech criticizing a sitting president's economic policiesB.False statements of fact made with knowledge of their falsity (defamation)C.Symbolic speech such as burning an American flag in political protestD.Commercial advertising that accurately describes a legal product

Question 17

Political socialization refers to the process by which people acquire their political beliefs and values. Research consistently identifies which factor as the most influential in shaping early political beliefs?

A.Income level at birth, since economic circumstances strongly predict future political affiliationB.Family, especially parents, whose political views children tend to adopt at high rates during childhoodC.The political party whose candidate wins the election during the year a person is bornD.Religious affiliation, which determines partisan identity more strongly than any other factor for most Americans

Question 18

American conservatism and liberalism differ in their views on the appropriate role of the federal government in the economy. Which statement most accurately characterizes the traditional difference?

A.Conservatives favor heavy federal regulation of business to protect workers; liberals favor market freedomB.Liberals tend to favor government intervention to reduce economic inequality; conservatives tend to favor free markets and limited government interventionC.Conservatives favor large federal deficits to stimulate growth; liberals favor balanced budgetsD.Both liberals and conservatives agree that government should stay completely out of the economy; they differ only on social issues

Question 19

The concept of judicial review — the power of courts to invalidate laws that violate the Constitution — was established by the Supreme Court in which landmark case?

A.McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), which upheld the constitutionality of the national bankB.Marbury v. Madison (1803), in which Chief Justice Marshall declared a section of the Judiciary Act unconstitutionalC.Fletcher v. Peck (1810), which was the first case invalidating a state law under the ConstitutionD.Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), which broadly interpreted the commerce clause

Question 20

The necessary and proper clause (Article I, Section 8) of the Constitution grants Congress the power to 'make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers.' This clause became central to the debate in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) because:

A.Maryland argued the clause gave states the authority to tax federal institutions when those institutions operated within state bordersB.The Court used the clause to uphold Congress's power to charter a bank even though banking is not among the enumerated powersC.Congress claimed the clause gave it unlimited power to pass any law, including laws regulating purely local activitiesD.The case decided whether the necessary and proper clause could be used to override state constitutions directly

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Question 21

Wisconsin v. Yoder (1972) balanced the Free Exercise Clause against state compulsory education laws. The Court held that:

A.State interests in education always override religious objections, since education is a compelling state interestB.Amish parents could exempt their children from Wisconsin's compulsory schooling law after eighth grade because their sincere religious practices outweighed the state's interestC.The Free Exercise Clause exempts all religious believers from any law they find religiously objectionableD.States may require religious schools to follow a secular curriculum identical to public school requirements

Question 22

The president nominates a candidate for the Supreme Court. Under the Constitution, what must happen before the nominee can take their seat?

A.Both chambers of Congress must approve the nominee by a two-thirds supermajorityB.The Senate must confirm the nominee by a majority voteC.The nominee must be approved by the Senate Judiciary Committee by at least a three-vote marginD.The nominee must pass a public referendum in the state from which they come from

Question 23

The War Powers Resolution of 1973 was passed over President Nixon's veto primarily to:

A.Prohibit the United States from entering any military alliances without Senate approvalB.Reassert congressional authority over the commitment of U.S. forces abroad by requiring presidential notification and limiting deployments to 60 days without congressional authorizationC.Give Congress the power to declare war by simple majority rather than the two-thirds supermajority previously requiredD.Transfer command of the National Guard from state governors to the president during wartime

Question 24

A candidate for the Senate announces she will not accept any corporate PAC money and will rely entirely on small-dollar donations from individuals. Which structural challenge does this strategy face?

A.Federal law prohibits candidates from receiving individual donations under $200, making small-dollar fundraising illegalB.Small-dollar fundraising requires reaching a large number of donors, which demands digital infrastructure, name recognition, and ongoing engagement that established candidates have but challengers often lackC.The FEC requires candidates using small-dollar financing to spend the money within 30 days of receipt, making planning difficultD.Under Citizens United, refusing corporate PAC money means an opposing candidate's allied Super PAC cannot be legally regulated, giving opponents an unlimited spending advantage

Question 25

The doctrine of selective incorporation holds that:

A.The Bill of Rights applies only to the federal government, and states are free to restrict rights as their constitutions permitB.Most provisions of the Bill of Rights apply to state governments through the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clauseC.The entire Bill of Rights applies to both federal and state governments, with no exceptionsD.States may apply Bill of Rights protections selectively, choosing which rights to honor within their borders

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Question 26

The separation of powers doctrine divides the national government into three branches. Which statement best describes how the system of checks and balances reinforces this separation?

A.Each branch operates in complete independence, with no ability to influence or constrain the othersB.Each branch is given specific powers to restrain the other two, preventing any single branch from accumulating too much authorityC.Congress can override any presidential or judicial action by a simple majority voteD.The Supreme Court holds ultimate authority over both Congress and the president in all matters of policy

Question 27

The table below shows a comparison between the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution.

Feature	Articles	Constitution
Tax power	States only	Congress directly
Commerce regulation	None	Congress
Executive branch	None	President
Amendment	13/13 states	2/3 Congress + 3/4 states

Based on this comparison, which conclusion is best supported?

A.The Constitution eliminated state sovereignty and replaced it with full national supremacyB.The Constitution addressed the Articles' central weakness by shifting key governing powers from states to the national governmentC.The Articles were actually more democratic than the Constitution because they required unanimous consent for amendmentsD.The Constitution weakened the executive branch compared to the Articles by placing the president under congressional oversight

Question 28

A researcher studies whether religious attendance predicts political participation and finds the following results: among regular church attendees, 72% voted in the last election; among non-attenders, 51% voted. The researcher concludes religion causes higher voter turnout. What is the most important methodological concern with this conclusion?

A.The sample size is too small to detect any meaningful differences between groupsB.The correlation could be explained by confounding variables — people who attend church may also be older, more educated, or wealthier, all of which independently predict turnoutC.Surveys about voting behavior are invalid because respondents lie about whether they actually votedD.Church attendance and voter turnout are measured in different units, making them impossible to compare statistically

Question 29

The media's agenda-setting function, as described by political scientists, refers to which phenomenon?

A.The media's ability to directly cause voters to change their party identification through sustained propagandaB.The media's power to influence which issues the public considers important by choosing which stories to cover prominentlyC.Political parties using media contacts to set the congressional legislative calendarD.Reporters developing editorial agendas that must be disclosed to readers under federal transparency law

Question 30

Which of the following is an example of Congress exercising its oversight function over the executive branch?

A.Congress passes a bill setting the federal minimum wageB.The Senate Judiciary Committee holds hearings to question the FBI director about an ongoing investigationC.The Supreme Court strikes down a federal agency regulation as exceeding statutory authorityD.The president issues an executive order directing all federal agencies to adopt new cybersecurity standards

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Question 31

Which of the following best explains why voter turnout in the United States is lower than in most other developed democracies?

A.Americans are constitutionally prohibited from voting more than once per decadeB.Voter registration in the United States is largely the individual's responsibility, while most other democracies register citizens automaticallyC.The United States holds fewer elections than other democracies, reducing the habit of voting among citizensD.American elections are all held on national holidays, which most workers celebrate rather than use for civic participation

Question 32

In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argued that a large republic was preferable to a small democracy primarily because:

A.Large republics would have stronger militaries capable of defending against foreign invasionB.A large republic with diverse factions would prevent any single faction from dominating, while representatives would filter popular passionsC.Only large territories could generate enough tax revenue to fund the national debt and necessary public worksD.Geographic distance between citizens would reduce political passions by keeping people focused on local concerns

Question 33

The Twenty-Fourth Amendment (1964) and the Voting Rights Act of 1965 both aimed at removing barriers to voting for Black Americans. Which barrier did the Twenty-Fourth Amendment specifically address?

A.Literacy tests administered by state election officials to determine voter qualificationB.Poll taxes — fees required to vote in federal elections — used in Southern states to disenfranchise poor Black votersC.Grandfather clauses that exempted white voters whose ancestors had voted from new registration requirementsD.Discriminatory drawing of district lines to dilute Black voting power in local elections

Question 34

A student writes: 'The Fourth Amendment protects citizens from unreasonable searches by requiring police to always get a warrant before searching anything.' A constitutional law professor would likely say this is:

A.Fully accurate — warrantless searches are always unconstitutional under the Fourth AmendmentB.An oversimplification — warrantless searches are permitted in numerous established exceptions, and the core requirement is reasonableness, not warrant obtainmentC.Completely wrong — the Fourth Amendment has been held to not apply to state criminal investigations at allD.Accurate only for criminal cases; in civil searches (like tax audits), the Fourth Amendment does not apply

Question 35

Which of the following is an example of elite (top-down) influence on public opinion rather than bottom-up formation?

A.Voters in a rural county shift against a new highway based on firsthand experience with traffic and noise from a test sectionB.Cable news networks use heavy coverage and specific framing of an issue to shift public attitudes toward their preferred positionC.Voters spontaneously organize a petition drive against a proposed tax increase before any politician has taken a public positionD.Farmers oppose a new agricultural regulation because it would increase their operating costs

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Question 36

In Schenck v. United States (1919), the Supreme Court upheld the conviction of an anti-war pamphlet distributor under the Espionage Act. The Court's ruling introduced which famous legal standard?

A.The strict scrutiny test, which requires the government to prove a compelling interest before restricting speechB.The clear and present danger test, asking whether speech creates a risk of immediate serious harm that Congress has authority to preventC.The imminent lawless action standard, which requires proof that violence will result within moments of the speechD.The prior restraint doctrine, which prohibits government censorship of publications before they are distributed

Question 37

A lobbying firm represents a major pharmaceutical company before Congress on a bill regulating drug pricing. Which activity would be legal under current law?

A.Paying a senator $50,000 to vote against the drug pricing billB.Bundling employee contributions totaling $500,000 for a senator's reelection campaign while lobbying that senator on the billC.Providing a senator's staff with a detailed policy brief analyzing the bill's potential effects on drug innovationD.Hiring a retired senator to lobby her former colleagues immediately after she leaves office

Question 38

The Constitution's impeachment process requires the House to impeach (bring charges) and the Senate to try and convict. For a president to be removed from office, the Senate must convict by:

A.A simple majority of senators present and votingB.A two-thirds supermajority of senators presentC.A unanimous vote, since removal of a president is a political act requiring national consensusD.Three-fourths of all senators, the same threshold used for constitutional amendments

Question 39

A poll shows 65% of Americans support stricter gun control, yet Congress has passed little new gun legislation over the past two decades. Which concept best explains this disconnect between public opinion and policy?

A.The electoral college system filters out majority preferences on cultural issues before they can influence CongressB.Intense minority preferences, Senate counter-majoritarian design, and well-organized interest groups can block legislation even when a majority favors itC.Public opinion polls are not reliable and the true public preference is actually opposed to gun controlD.The president holds veto power over all gun legislation, and every recent president has used it to block reform

Question 40

In New York Times Co. v. United States (1971), the Supreme Court allowed the Times to publish the classified Pentagon Papers despite the Nixon administration's request for an injunction. This ruling reinforced which constitutional principle?

A.The government may never restrict the press's ability to publish information obtained from government sourcesB.The government bears an extremely heavy burden to justify prior restraint (pre-publication censorship) of the pressC.Classified government documents are always constitutionally protected from disclosure regardless of their contentD.The First Amendment protects all publication by the press from criminal prosecution after the fact, not only prior restraints

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Question 41

A president issues an executive order directing the Department of Homeland Security to prioritize deportation of certain categories of undocumented immigrants. Opponents argue this exceeds presidential authority. Which is the strongest constitutional argument against the order?

A.The order violates the First Amendment by targeting people based on their national origin, which is a form of speechB.Immigration law is a congressional domain; the president may only act consistently with statutes Congress has passed, and cannot create new categories of enforcement priority beyond what law permitsC.Executive orders are only valid when the Senate approves them by majority vote within 30 days of issuanceD.The Tenth Amendment reserves immigration authority exclusively to the states, leaving the federal government no power over deportation

Question 42

The graph below shows presidential success rates on congressional votes from 1955 to 2020, broken down by whether the president's party controls Congress.

Presidential success rate when party controls Congress: ~85%
Presidential success rate under divided government: ~55%

Which conclusion is best supported by this data?

A.Presidents have more formal constitutional powers than Congress in all circumstancesB.Partisan alignment between the president and Congress significantly affects the president's practical legislative successC.Under divided government, Congress always overrides presidential vetoes at a high rateD.The president's legislative success rate is entirely determined by the quality of their personal relationships with congressional leaders

Question 43

The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution reserves powers 'not delegated to the United States by the Constitution' to the states or the people. This amendment was primarily intended to address Anti-Federalist concerns that the Constitution:

A.Did not give Congress enough power to manage the national economy effectivelyB.Gave the national government broad implied powers that could be used to crowd out state authorityC.Failed to protect the right to bear arms and the right of citizens to form militiasD.Allowed the president to appoint federal judges without adequate Senate confirmation oversight

Question 44

Martin Luther King Jr.'s 'Letter from Birmingham Jail' (1963) responded to White moderate clergy who urged him to wait for change through courts and legislation. King's central argument was that:

A.Violence was a necessary last resort when nonviolent protest failed to achieve resultsB.The urgency of justice could not wait; nonviolent direct action was necessary because negotiation and legal channels alone had proven insufficientC.Federal courts had no authority to order desegregation and only Congress could require racial equality by statuteD.The civil rights movement should focus exclusively on economic inequality rather than legal segregation

Question 45

The Articles of Confederation differed from the Constitution most significantly in that the Articles:

A.Created a bicameral legislature with representation based on state populationB.Gave Congress no power to levy taxes directly on citizens or regulate interstate commerceC.Established a strong executive branch with a separately elected presidentD.Provided for federal courts to resolve disputes between states

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Question 46

A newspaper reports that a federal agency has been issuing rules without following the notice-and-comment procedures required by the Administrative Procedure Act. The most appropriate remedy for affected parties would be to:

A.Petition Congress to pass a resolution disapproving the rules under the Congressional Review ActB.File a lawsuit in federal court challenging the rules as procedurally invalid under the Administrative Procedure ActC.Request that the president remove the agency head for violating the APAD.Appeal directly to the Supreme Court, which has original jurisdiction over administrative procedural violations

Question 47

Congress passes a law directing the Environmental Protection Agency to 'issue regulations controlling greenhouse gas emissions as the Administrator deems appropriate.' A manufacturer challenges the resulting regulation as an unconstitutional delegation of legislative power. Which doctrine is the manufacturer most likely invoking?

A.The nondelegation doctrine, which holds that Congress cannot give agencies open-ended legislative authority without an intelligible principle guiding its useB.The vesting clause doctrine, which holds that all executive power is vested solely in the president and cannot be shared with independent agenciesC.The incorporation doctrine, which holds that federal regulations must observe constitutional rights applicable to the statesD.The political question doctrine, which holds that courts cannot review decisions committed to the discretion of political branches

Question 48

The United States uses a single-member plurality ('first-past-the-post') electoral system for most federal offices. Which of the following is a predictable consequence of this system compared to proportional representation?

A.Third parties win seats in proportion to their share of the national voteB.Two major parties tend to dominate because candidates who cannot win a plurality in any single district win no representation at allC.Voters are more likely to vote for their sincere first choice since any vote above 50% is wastedD.Coalition governments are common because no single party can win a majority of seats in the House

Question 49

A pollster conducts a telephone survey of 800 randomly selected likely voters and finds that 52% support a ballot measure, with a margin of error of ±3 points at a 95% confidence level. What does this mean?

A.There is a 3% chance that the true population support differs from 52%B.The pollster is 95% confident that the true level of voter support falls between 49% and 55%C.If the same poll were repeated 100 times, at least 95 times the result would be exactly 52%D.The ballot measure will pass with 52% of the final vote within ±3 points because the sample was random

Question 50

The 'gender gap' in American politics refers to which empirical pattern?

A.Women are less likely than men to vote in presidential electionsB.Women are more likely than men to identify as Democrats and vote for Democratic candidatesC.Women hold fewer elected offices than their share of the population would predict if selection were randomD.Women earn less than men in equivalent government positions

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Question 51

In Brutus No. 1, the Anti-Federalist author argued most strongly that the proposed Constitution would:

A.Fail to provide adequate national defense because Congress could not raise a standing armyB.Inevitably consolidate all power in the national government, destroying state sovereignty and individual libertyC.Create an excessively weak executive that would be dominated by a powerful SenateD.Produce financial instability because the national government lacked adequate revenue-raising powers

Question 52

The Supreme Court's decision in United States v. Nixon (1974) is significant for the separation of powers primarily because it established that:

A.Congress, not the president, controls the release of executive branch documents in criminal proceedingsB.Executive privilege exists but is not absolute, and courts can compel disclosure of presidential communications in a criminal proceedingC.A sitting president cannot be indicted or criminally prosecuted while in officeD.The president has absolute authority over all executive branch records and may withhold any document from both courts and Congress

Question 53

The Senate filibuster — the practice of extended debate that prevents a bill from coming to a vote unless 60 senators agree to invoke cloture — is best understood as an example of which concept?

A.A constitutional requirement that major legislation pass by supermajorityB.An internal Senate rule that empowers the minority to block legislation unless a supermajority chooses to proceedC.A presidential power to delay Senate action on legislation the White House opposesD.A House rule requiring committee approval before any floor vote on major legislation

Question 54

In Brown v. Board of Education (1954), the Supreme Court unanimously struck down racial segregation in public schools. The Court's key legal reasoning departed from Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) by holding that:

A.The Thirteenth Amendment's abolition of slavery required complete racial integration in all public institutionsB.Separate educational facilities are inherently unequal because segregation itself generates a sense of inferiority among Black childrenC.The original intent of the Fourteenth Amendment's framers was to prohibit all racial distinctions in lawD.State-enforced segregation violated the First Amendment by compelling Black students to associate with segregationist ideology

Question 55

Political scientists distinguish between 'generational replacement' and 'period effects' as explanations for changing public opinion over time. Which scenario best illustrates a period effect?

A.Public approval of same-sex marriage has grown mainly because young people who support it are replacing older people who oppose itB.Public support for the Iraq War dropped sharply across all age groups after news broke of no weapons of mass destruction being foundC.The electorate becomes more racially diverse over time as the minority share of the population grows and those groups vote at increasing ratesD.Conservative voters become more economically focused as they accumulate wealth over their careers

AP US Government and Politics Full-length practice exam 2 — Free with Answer Explanations | Test Practice Hub